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If a woman has conceived a child before marriage and she marries the same man whose child she is bearing, what will be the ruling about the child?
The said child is that of the father by whose sperm he was conceived, as well as being the mother's child. The child belongs to both of them, but does not inherit the father as he was born illegitimately.
My understanding is that Sharia considers non-Muslims to be married if they have some kind of marriage in accordance with their religion or customs, and they do not need to follow Sharia requirements of marriage. When a couple living together in a conjugal relationship are considered to be in a union after living together for a set period of time, would their offspring be considered legitimate since the parents have an understanding that they are in a relationship recognized by the state and civil law?
There is no doubt that there are two types of conjugal relationships between males and females. The first, which is common among societies, is based on marriage, and the children from the couple are legitimate. The second is based on mutual interest and without marital bonds, and the children from such relationships are not considered as legitimate from the Islamic perspective.
Non-Muslim couples consider that is alright to date and cohabit with a person without getting married. There is some form of agreement to be dating one another exclusively or for an engagement to marry in the future. They do not consider this to be adultery. In case they have children, will they be illegitimate?
Marriage is a common concept between humans and not something that is hidden. If the couple intended to form a relationship of marriage, then they are married even if they did not have a verbal contract between them, and the children then are considered as legitimate. If the couple were intending to have a physical relationship, i.e., sexual intercourse and emotional closeness, the relationship is not considered as marital relation, and the children are considered as out of wedlock.