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"And those who guard their private parts, except before their mates or those whom their right hands possess, for they surely are not blamable" (Quran 23:5-6). In this verse, who are those whom "the right hand possesses"? Does this refer to servants?
The verse is referring to the female slaves who existed in past eras and no longer exist in our time.
Is the formula a necessary condition for the validity of marriage contract?
Yes, whether it is a temporary or a permanent marriage, it is necessary to recite the marriage formula between the two parties in order for the marriage contract to be valid.
My nephew has married a Christian woman in the Christian way, but my nephew is still a Muslim. Will his relationship with the Christian woman under this marriage be considered as adultery?
In the marriage contract, the proposal and acceptance must be present between the man and woman. If this is not included in the contract, it is invalid. One can redo the marriage contract correctly between the man and the woman. The woman will say, “I marry myself to you on a dower of such-and-such”, then the man accepts by saying, “I accept.” The dower must be stated and determined and they should agree on it.
I am an Ithna-Ashari Shia. I intend to marry a Sunni girl. The way adopted for marriage here is: The bride is asked by the marriage reciter directly or indirectly if she accepts the named groom as her husband with the specified amount of dower. It is repeated thrice and if she accepts it, the groom is asked in the same way by the marriage reciter. This process takes place in the native language. My question is: Is this marriage contract valid according to us?
Such a way of marriage is an indication of the approval of each party to marrying one another, and it is not a marriage contract between them. The marriage contract must be between the two parties directly, or indirectly via their representatives, consisting of an offer and then an acceptance; for example, the bride says: "I marry myself to you on a dower of so-and-so" or her representative says: "I marry my client to you on a dower of so-and-so", then the groom accepts by saying "I accept," or his representative will say that he accepts.
This can be in any language.
Are marriages between Shias and Sunnis valid and permissible?
Yes, they are permissible if the required conditions are met based on the rulings of the jurisprudence of the Ahlulbait (peace be upon them).
I have a question regarding the structure for a contract when arranging a temporary marriage. Is the below the correct format? and can I say it in English?
1- I start the contract by saying: "I marry you on a dower of so-and-so and for the duration of so-and-so"
2- the woman then accepts by saying: "I accept".
The mentioned structure of the marriage formula is correct, and you can say it in English.
In a temporary marriage, if the boy says "I marry you for three days for X dollars," and the girl says "Okay," is this recognized as a valid form of marriage contract?
This is sufficient in forming the marriage contract.
If a Shia man marries according to the customs of Nepal, not knowing the Islamic method, is the marriage valid?
If the woman was Muslim and the proposal and acceptance had taken place between the man and woman i.e. the marriage contact, then the marriage is correct even if it was associated with wrong practices. If the woman was not Muslim or the acceptance and the proposal did not take place between the couple, the marriage did not take place.
Can the verbal formula of the marriage contract be repeated, in order to clear any doubts in the mind?
It is permissible to repeat the formula of the marriage contract for certainty in its correctness.
Is it necessary in the correctness of the marriage contract that it be in the Arabic language? Or can it be in any language?
It is correct to recite the marriage contract in any language. Using the Arabic language is not a condition in the correctness of the marriage contract.
If both the bride and groom know the Arabic language, can they choose another language in forming the marriage contract?
Yes, it is permissible.
Can my fiance have the marriage contract with a scholar as my representative without my presence, or vice versa?
The religious cleric can be the agent of the husband or the agent of the wife if one of them is not present at the place of the contract.
Should the temporary marriage contract be pronounced in the presence of witnesses? Or is it sufficient for the man and the woman to conduct it without any witnesses?
It is not obligatory in the validity of the marriage contract, be it temporary or permanent, to have it witnessed.